Two objects are at rest on a frictionless surface. Object 1 has a greater mass than object 2.
(a) When a constant force is applied to object 1, it accelerates through a distance d. The force is removed from object 1 and is applied to object 2. At the moment when object 2 has accelerated through the same distance d, which statements are true? (Select all that apply.)
K1 < K2 p1 = p2 p1 < p2 p1 > p2 K1 > K2 K1 = K2
(b) When a force is applied to object 1, it accelerates for a time interval ?t. The force is removed from object 1 and is applied to object 2. Which statements are true after object 2 has accelerated for the same time interval ?t? (Select all that apply.)
K1 > K2 K1 = K2 p1 = p2 p1 > p2 K1 < K2 p1 < p2

a) Kinetic energy= ΔW. W=Fd, and since in both scenarios the same force and same distance is travelled. K1=K2. I am assuming that the objects are at non zero height so by P=mgh, P1>P2

b. Again I am assuming that the objects are at non zero height so by P=mgh, P1>P2. A heavier mass, a constant force means a smaller acceleration. So a1<a2. We can then use x-x0=v0t+1/2at² and since v0=0, x-x0(d)=1/2at². Solve for t²=2d/a. Since t is the same for both but a1<a2, d1<d2. And since Kinetic Energy=ΔW, W=Fd and F is constant while d1<d2, K1<K2.

CRICETUSGO CRICETUSGO · Answer 2

The relation will be:

(a) K1 = K2

(b) K1 < K2

According to the question,

Potential energy be "P".
Kinetic energy be "K".

(a)

Word done towards both the block will be similar.

So,

→ [tex]P1 = P2[/tex]

→ [tex]K1= K2[/tex]

(b)

We know,

→ [tex]a = \frac{F}{M}[/tex]

or,

→ [tex]V = a\times t[/tex]

Now,

→ [tex]K = \frac{1}{2} MV^2[/tex]

[tex]= 0.5\times M\times V^2[/tex]

[tex]=0.5\times M\times (\frac{F^2}{M^2} )\times t^2[/tex]

[tex]= 0.5\times F^2\times \frac{t^2}{M}[/tex]

The force and t will be same. So K of the smaller mass will be greater than the larger mass.

hence,

→ [tex]K1<K2[/tex]

Thus the above responses are correct.

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